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[tex](3n)^{\frac{1}{2n}} [/tex] as n goes to infinity

just by eyeballing, I know that as the nget sufficiently large, the limit of the exponent will get to 0. and 3n to the 0 will be one....

im' sure on the exam, this wont work, and I dont know how to give a precise proof of it. this is the chapter on subsequences and Bolzano-wiestress theorem, so I assume I need to use one of these concepts...but I dont know how....

any tips?

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# How do I prove this?

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