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How do you prove this?

  1. Jun 28, 2014 #1

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    [tex]\oint {d{\bf{R}} \times {\bf{A}}} = \mathop{{\int\!\!\!\!\!\int}\mkern-21mu \bigcirc}
    {\left( {d{\bf{S}} \times \nabla } \right) \times {\bf{A}}} [/tex]
     
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  3. Jun 28, 2014 #2

    ShayanJ

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    I would try Stokes' theorem. Just try to find apropriate fields and field derivatives instead of the original fields in the theorem. I'm almost sure it will work.
     
  4. Jun 28, 2014 #3

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    I am trying to prove this using the common vector identities and Stoke's theorem, without going into tensor notation at every step. It seems to be quite impossible.
     
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