How Good Am I at Integrals?

  • Thread starter Gib Z
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In summary, the individual tried to do an integrative problem involving tan x, but was not able to get the answer correct. They substituted for dx and got an incorrect answer.
  • #141
Gib Z said:
And as I just realized, that integral is not expressible in terms of elementary functions...

EDIT: INDEFINITE integral i meant to say.
how did you realize that?

i have another integral. i don't know how to do it. can anybody help?

[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}x^ne^{x^2}dx[/tex]
 
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  • #142
I worked out the taylor series and integrated term by term, this is my best:

[tex]\int_0^{\infty} x^{a} e^{x^2} dx =\lim_{x\rightarrow {\infty}} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^{a+(2n+1)}}{n!\cdot (a+(2n+1))}[/tex]

That doesn't help much
 
  • #143
murshid_islam said:
how did you realize that?

i have another integral. i don't know how to do it. can anybody help?

[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}x^ne^{x^2}dx[/tex]

It diverges.
 
  • #144
Looking at the summation again, It looks like it does lol.
EDIT: Or one could see that both are increasing functions, which i just noticed and am starting to feel stupid about for not noticing sooner.
 
  • #145
what about [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}x^ne^{-x^2}dx[/tex]
 
  • #146
murshid_islam said:
what about [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}x^ne^{-x^2}dx[/tex]
Putting z=x^2,

[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}x^ne^{-x^2}dx
=\frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\infty}z^{\frac{n+1}{2}-1}e^{-z}dz [/tex]
Apart from the factor 1/2, the integral is a Gamma Integral with parameters (n+1)/2,1.
If (n+1)/2 is a positive integer, then the integral = 0.5[(n-1)/2]! ... (Gamma distribution is known as Erlang distribution if the shape parameter is an integer.)
 
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  • #147
what if (n+1)/2 is not an integer?
 
  • #148
It becomes [tex]\frac{1}{2}\Gamma(\frac{n+1}{2})[/tex].

Which can be approximated...no closed form (in general).
 
  • #149
Closed forms can be generated for any integer n with the following identities:

[tex]\Gamma(z) \; \Gamma\left(z + \frac{1}{2}\right) = 2^{1-2z} \; \sqrt{\pi} \; \Gamma(2z). \,\![/tex]

And

[tex]\Gamma\left(\frac{n}{2}+1\right)= \sqrt{\pi}\, \frac{n!}{2^{(n+1)/2}}[/tex] (n odd)
 
  • #150
Lol its been a while since I've posted here. Anybody got an interesting integral?
 
  • #151
Not technically difficult, but a nice introduction to recurrence methods;

[tex]I = \int{e^x\cdot\sin(x)}\; dx[/tex]
 
  • #152
[tex]\int_0^{\pi} \frac{x \sin x}{1 + \cos^2 x} \; dx[/tex]

and

[tex]\int_0^{\pi / 2} \frac{1}{1 + \tan^{\pi} x} \; dx[/tex]

are interesting.
 
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  • #153
morphism: Neat, integrals I could do but not Mathematica. :)
 
  • #154
Hootenanny - [tex] I = e^x \sin x - \int e^x \cos x dx[/tex]
[tex]\int e^x \cos x dx = e^x \cos x + I[/tex]
[tex]I= \frac{e^x(\sin x - \cos x)}{2}[/tex]

morphism - Using the standard result [tex]\int^a_0 f(x) dx = \int^a_0 f(a-x)[/tex], your first integral is shown below:

[tex]I= \int^{\pi}_0 \frac{x\sin x}{1+\cos^2 x}dx = \int^{\pi}_0 \frac{\pi \sin x}{1+\cos^2 x}dx - I[/tex]

[tex]2I = \pi \int^{\pi}_0 \frac{\sin x}{1+\cos^2 x} dx[/tex]

Can't be bothered typing up all the latex, but basically u=cos x, and arctan form gets us :
[tex]I = \frac{\pi^2}{4}[/tex].

As for your second one, I find your torture methods interesting. We have a vacancy at Guantanamo Bay if you would like to apply.
 
  • #155
Hehe :smile:

(Your solution for the first one is correct of course. Good job!)
 
  • #156
how do i solve morphism's second one?
[tex]\int_0^{\pi / 2} \frac{1}{1 + \tan^{\pi} x} \; dx[/tex]
 
  • #157
Use the "standard result" Gib posted (i.e. essentially the substitution u = pi/2 - x). Then mess around with things.
 
  • #158
Okay, one more trig one. I haven't looked through your previous post so I apologise if this has already been posted;

[tex]I = \int{\frac{dx}{4+\sin(x)}}[/tex]
 
  • #159
Nvm Much easier than I thought. I didn't even give it a try because I seemed to think the exponent of pi was a bad sign.
Let I be the original Integral.
[tex]I= \int^{\pi/2}_0 \frac{1}{1+\tan^{\pi} x} dx = \int^{\pi/2}_0 \frac{1}{1+\cot^{\pi} x} dx[/tex].

[tex]2I = \int^{\pi/2}_0 \frac{1}{1+\tan^{\pi} x} dx + \int^{\pi/2}_0 \frac{1}{1+\cot^{\pi} x} dx = \int^{\pi/2}_0 \frac{1}{1+\cot^{\pi} x} + \frac{1}{1+\tan^{\pi} x} dx [/tex]. Simple cross multiplying and expansion gets us [tex]2I=\int^{\pi/2}_0 1 dx = \pi/2[/tex]

Therefore [tex]I = \frac{\pi}{4}[/tex].

Nice ones morphism, got any more?
 
  • #160
Umm Hootenannys one took a while, I Basically did t=tan (x/2) and made it a rational function so on so forth.

I got [tex]\frac{2}{\sqrt{15}} \arctan \frac{4 \tan (x/2) +1}{\sqrt{15}} + C[/tex] which seems like a hairy answer, I don't think I am right. I can't be stuffed to differentiate it to check lol.
 
  • #161
Nice ones morphism, got any more?
Here you go:

[itex]\int_0^{\pi / 2} \tan^{-1} x + \cot^{-1} x \; dx[/itex]

These are inverses not reciprocals. (N.B.: There exists a solution that is one line long.)

[itex]\int_0^1 \frac{\log(x + 1)}{x^2 + 1} \; dx[/itex]

[itex]\int_0^1 \frac{\log(x + 1)}{x} \; dx[/itex]

[itex]\int_0^\pi \log (\sin x) \; dx[/itex]
 
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  • #162
Hehe the first one is easier than I thought. I first tried u = arctan x + arccot x, but when I tried to find du I realized the derivative was 0, so I finally noticed it was a constant function. I tried x=1, the constant function is equal to pi/2, so the solution is [tex]\frac{\pi^2}{4}[/tex]!

I couldn't do the 2nd one :(

Third one I did u= log (2), du/dx=1/x which is in there so all good.
So I integrated it and ended up with [tex]\frac{\log^2 (x+1)}{2}[/tex].

Last one, I split it up into 2 integrals, from 0 to pi/2, and pi/2 to pi.
Using symmetry arguments and the such, I got that it [tex]2I= \int^{\pi/2}_0 \log(\sin x) dx = \int^{\pi/2}_0 \log(\cos x) dx[/tex] but I am stuck from there.
 
  • #163
Use the property of logs that log(xy) = log(x) + log(y) with the double angle formula of the sine.
 
  • #164
[tex]I=\frac{1}{4} \int^{\pi/2}_0 \log_e (\frac{1}{2}\sin 2x) dx[/tex]...I don't get it...
 
  • #165
Wait up I think I am getting it, Ill post it in 5 mins
 
  • #166
Nope lost again...
 
  • #167
Gib Z said:
Umm Hootenannys one took a while, I Basically did t=tan (x/2) and made it a rational function so on so forth.

I got [tex]\frac{2}{\sqrt{15}} \arctan \frac{4 \tan (x/2) +1}{\sqrt{15}} + C[/tex] which seems like a hairy answer, I don't think I am right. I can't be stuffed to differentiate it to check lol.
Absolutely spot on Gib, it can't be simplified any further:approve:
 
  • #168
Gib Z said:
Hehe the first one is easier than I thought. I first tried u = arctan x + arccot x, but when I tried to find du I realized the derivative was 0, so I finally noticed it was a constant function. I tried x=1, the constant function is equal to pi/2, so the solution is [tex]\frac{\pi^2}{4}[/tex]!
Yes, that's right, but there's a solution that'st truly one ling long. Yours involves differentiating things and evaluating it at a point, so it's longer than one line, especially if you don't know the derivatives of those things. :wink: The solution I have in mind is: Notice that arctan(x) and arccot(x) over [0, pi/2] correspond to the two accute angles in a right-angled triangle. So they add up to pi/2.

I couldn't do the 2nd one :(
How about setting x=tan(t)?

Third one I did u= log (2), du/dx=1/x which is in there so all good.
So I integrated it and ended up with [tex]\frac{\log^2 (x+1)}{2}[/tex].
I'm not sure I follow. Do you mean you set u=log(x)? That doesn't help...

Last one, I split it up into 2 integrals, from 0 to pi/2, and pi/2 to pi.
Using symmetry arguments and the such, I got that it [tex]2I= \int^{\pi/2}_0 \log(\sin x) dx = \int^{\pi/2}_0 \log(\cos x) dx[/tex] but I am stuck from there.
That's good. Now use these to get I. (sin(x) = 2sin(x/2)cos(x/2) and log(xy) = log(x)+log(y).)
 
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  • #169
The third one I sed u = log(x+1), and that helps because du/dx = 1/x, which is there as well. So My solution for it was [tex]\frac{\ln 2)^2}{2}[/tex].

Last one, that's what i did and i got this!

[tex]I=\frac{1}{4} \int^{\pi/2}_0 \log_e (\frac{1}{2}\sin 2x) dx[/tex]

Can't do that one!
 
  • #170
For the one you said x=tan t, I did it but I can finish off [tex]\int \ln (\tan t +1) dt[/tex]
 
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  • #171
Gib Z said:
The third one I sed u = log(x+1), and that helps because du/dx = 1/x, which is there as well. So My solution for it was [tex]\frac{\ln 2)^2}{2}[/tex].
But du/dx isn't 1/x! It's 1/(x+1). :smile:

Last one, that's what i did and i got this!

[tex]I=\frac{1}{4} \int^{\pi/2}_0 \log_e (\frac{1}{2}\sin 2x) dx[/tex]

Can't do that one!
OK, let's see.

[tex]I = \int_0^{\pi} \log(2) + \log(\sin \frac{x}{2}) + \log(\cos \frac{x}{2} ) \; dx[/tex]

From your observations, we can see that this is just I = pi log(2) + I + I.
 
  • #172
MY GOD KILL ME, I really should have seen those >.< Staring me in the face..

Okie well its getting late here in Australia, Ill try again with the remaining 2 tomorrow.
 
  • #173
Gib Z said:
For the one you said x=tan t, I did it but I can finish off [tex]\int \ln (\tan t +1) dt[/tex]
[tex]\ln (1 + \tan t) = \ln(\sin t + \cos t) - \ln(\cos t) = \ln \left( \sqrt2\cos(t - \frac{\pi}{4}) \right) - \ln(\cos t)[/tex]

Good night!
 
  • #174
Ok I am back But for your hint on the x=tan t one, am I just awfully stupid or is that still quite hard to integrate..
 
  • #175
Here's the next step:

[tex]\ln(\sqrt 2) + \ln \left( \cos \left( t - \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \right) - \ln(\cos t)[/tex]

Now use the limits of integration...
 

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