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How would wormholes work?

  1. Jan 27, 2012 #1
    Stephen Hawking said wormholes within the fabric of space can't exist, so is it logical to think that you could achieve similar results of a wormhole by creating different areas of probability which take a group of particles and make their location most likely to pop up in another location?
    How would the transfer of momentum and force work with this?
     
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  3. Jan 28, 2012 #2

    Simon Bridge

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    It doesn't. You are trying to use non-relativistic QM where you want relativity.
     
  4. Feb 10, 2012 #3
    I don't think that he has said any such thing. He merely proved (about 20 years ago) a theorem that requires wormholes to violate the Weak Energy Condition (because they can be converted into time machines).

    You would need to solve a partial differential equation that determines the wave function of particles. The wave function, from which probability is determined, would have to be "surgically altered" so that it mimicked a wormhole.

    The problem is that you're not allowed to alter the wave function itself. You must alter the equation that generates it.

    The only wave to alter this equation to produce the desired result is to change the manifold on which the equation is defined.

    This is tantamount to assuming the existence of a standard wormhole.
     
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