- #1
C_Ovidiu
- 23
- 0
Can someone please explain this ?
Let's say u have a slit through which waves have to pass .
In order to have a difraction why does the slit have to be comparable with the wavelenghth ? It states this in every book and says that it's demonstrable using Huygens principle . I know Huygens principle but I can't see why should there be a difraction at all , the front wave being parallel with the slit all the time .
Help
Let's say u have a slit through which waves have to pass .
In order to have a difraction why does the slit have to be comparable with the wavelenghth ? It states this in every book and says that it's demonstrable using Huygens principle . I know Huygens principle but I can't see why should there be a difraction at all , the front wave being parallel with the slit all the time .
Help