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I have no clue

  1. Feb 2, 2005 #1
    I have searched for this answer all day long.
    Why is Vave multiplied by 2 to obtain Vf?
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 3, 2005 #2
    i feel Vave=(Vf+Vi)/2
    since Vi=0,we have the result.
  4. Feb 3, 2005 #3


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    Going by the definitions, we have, for the average velocity :

    [tex]v_{ave} = \frac{total~distance~traveled}{total~time~taken} = \frac {s}{t} [/tex]

    Now just substitute for s, from the equations of motion to get the required result.
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