I'm currently reading up about solving the schrodinger equation for a one-dimensional particle in a one-dimensional box with an infinite level of potential outside the box, and I have a *slight* problem (no, really, it is very slight)(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I've got to the equation where the Wavefunction = Acos(2*x*pi/lambda - omega*t). And the text I'm working on says that using the planck relationship omega is equal to energy? ey!:grumpy: I was under the impression that omega equalled angular velocity (not that I have a clue why a wave would have angular velocity, but that's another story).

Besides, I'm not entirely sure how that equation is in the form it is - the wave equation arrived at by modelling a travelling 1-d wave comes to Asin(2*pi/lambda(x ± vt). Firstly, how does that get to a cos expression (is that just coming from using different initial conditions where in the first case x = A at t = 0 (well, psi, or whatever) and x = 0 at t = 0 in the second? That leaves the omega*t bit of the first equation - I'm assuming that is equivalent to 2*pi*vt/lambda from the traveling wave equation - how do those two relate?

And finally where did the minus sign go from the second equation?

Blech, sorry for the convoluted post, I'm not really this confused! honest!:uhh:

Cheers,

Just some guy

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# I shot schrodinger's cat and then I ate it

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