Identical particles in 1D infinite well

In summary, to find the mean square distance between the 2 particles, you need to first find the expectation values of x_1^2 and x_2^2 using the given equations and the orthogonality property of sine functions. Then, you can use the formula for mean square distance to calculate the final result.
  • #1
E92M3
68
0

Homework Statement



I need to find the mean square distance between the 2 particles. Before I can do that, I need the expectation of [tex]x_1^2[/tex] and [tex]x_2^2[/tex] , then [tex]x_1x_2[/tex]. I an on the first part and got stuck.

Homework Equations



[tex]<X_1^2>=\int_0^L \int_0^L x_1^2 |\psi_{n,m}(x_1,x_2)|^2 dx_1dx_2[/tex]
where:
[tex]\psi_{n,m}(x_1,x_2)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}[\psi_n(x_1)\psi_m(x_2)+\psi_n(x_2)\psi_m(x_1)][/tex]
This is used because the spin state is antisymmetric.
[tex]\psi_n(x_1)=\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\sin (\frac{n \pi}{L}x_1)[/tex]
[tex]\psi_m(x_1)=\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\sin (\frac{m \pi}{L}x_1)[/tex]
[tex]\psi_n(x_2)=\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\sin (\frac{n \pi}{L}x_2)[/tex]
[tex]\psi_m(x_2)=\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\sin (\frac{m \pi}{L}x_2)[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


I play around a bit and got this:

[tex]\int_0^L \int_0^L x_1^2 |\psi_{n,m}(x_1,x_2)|^2 dx_1dx_2[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{1}{2}[\int_0^L \psi_m(x_2)^2 \int_0^L x_1^2 \psi_n(x_1)^2dx_1dx_2+2\int_0^L \psi_n(x_2)\psi_m(x_2) \int_0^L x_1^2 \psi_n(x_1)[/tex][tex]\psi_m(x_1)dx_1dx_2+\int_0^L \psi_n(x_2)^2 \int_0^L x_1^2 \psi_m(x_1)^2dx_1dx_2][/tex]
[tex]=\frac{1}{2}[L^2(\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{2n^2\pi^2})+\frac{8}{L^2}\int_0^L \sin (\frac{n \pi}{L}x_2)\sin (\frac{m \pi}{L}x_2)dx_2\int_0^L x_1^2[/tex][tex]\sin (\frac{n \pi}{L}x_1)\sin (\frac{m \pi}{L}x_1)dx_1+L^2(\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{2m^2\pi^2})][/tex]
[tex]=\frac{1}{2}[L^2(\frac{2}{3}-\frac{1}{2n^2\pi^2}-\frac{1}{2m^2\pi^2})+\frac{8}{L^2}\int_0^L \sin (\frac{n \pi}{L}x_2)\sin (\frac{m \pi}{L}x_2)dx_2\int_0^L x_1^2[/tex][tex]\sin (\frac{n \pi}{L}x_1)\sin (\frac{m \pi}{L}x_1)dx_1][/tex]

Am I correct so far? I am stuck from this point. Thanks for the help!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2


Yes, your approach is correct so far. To continue, you can use the orthogonality property of the sine functions to simplify the integral:

\int_0^L \sin (\frac{n \pi}{L}x)\sin (\frac{m \pi}{L}x)dx=\begin{cases} 0 & \text{if } n\neq m \\ \frac{L}{2} & \text{if } n=m \end{cases}

Using this property, you can simplify the integral and solve for the expectation value of x_1^2. Similarly, you can use the orthogonality property to solve for the expectation value of x_2^2. Once you have both values, you can use the formula for mean square distance to calculate the final result.
 

1. What are identical particles in a 1D infinite well?

Identical particles in a 1D infinite well refer to a theoretical system in quantum mechanics where two or more particles are confined within a one-dimensional space, such as a potential well, and have identical properties and behaviors. This scenario is often used to study the effects of quantum statistics on the behavior of particles.

2. How do identical particles in a 1D infinite well behave compared to non-identical particles?

Identical particles in a 1D infinite well exhibit distinct behaviors due to quantum statistics, specifically the Pauli exclusion principle. This means that identical particles cannot occupy the same quantum state simultaneously, leading to different energy levels and distribution patterns compared to non-identical particles.

3. What is the significance of studying identical particles in a 1D infinite well?

The study of identical particles in a 1D infinite well allows for a better understanding of the fundamental principles of quantum mechanics and how particles behave in confined spaces. It also has practical applications in fields such as condensed matter physics and quantum computing.

4. Can identical particles in a 1D infinite well have different energies?

Yes, identical particles in a 1D infinite well can have different energies due to their different quantum states. However, the energy levels of identical particles will still be distinct from those of non-identical particles due to the Pauli exclusion principle.

5. How does the number of identical particles affect their behavior in a 1D infinite well?

As the number of identical particles increases in a 1D infinite well, the energy levels become more closely spaced, leading to a higher density of states. This can result in different distribution patterns and overall behavior compared to systems with fewer identical particles.

Similar threads

  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
3
Views
901
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
7
Views
1K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
26
Views
4K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
3
Views
924
Replies
1
Views
802
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
1
Views
906
Replies
16
Views
540
Replies
12
Views
351
Back
Top