# If: 1^x=1^y and as: 1^2=1^99 then: 1=99

1. Aug 1, 2005

if:
1^x=1^y
and as:
1^2=1^99
then:
1=99

2. Aug 1, 2005

### arildno

Why do think this is true?

Since 1*0=99*0, do you consider this as proof of your assertion as well?

Last edited: Aug 1, 2005
3. Aug 1, 2005

### El Hombre Invisible

The log of your equation would beg to differ... EDIT: except you consistently used 1, not a variable. Duh! Mondays are rubbish. Anyway, shouldn't that read 2 = 99?

Last edited: Aug 1, 2005
4. Aug 1, 2005

### VietDao29

I dunno if it's a joke or not.
If you have a function f(x) such that $f(x_0) \neq f(x_1)$, for all $x_0 \neq x_1$. Just in that case, you will have $f(x) = f(y) \Leftrightarrow x = y$
Some function like :f(x) = 0x, f(x) = 1 ^ x, f(x) = x ^ 0 ($x \in \mathbb{R} - \{ 0 \}$). You cannot have $f(x) = f(y) \Leftrightarrow x = y$. Why? Because in that 3 examples:
$\forall x, f(x) = const$
Viet Dao,

Last edited: Aug 1, 2005
5. Aug 1, 2005

### Alkatran

sin(0) = sin(2 pi)

Oh no! 2 pi = 0, meaning pi = 0, which means circles don't exist!

If only there was a flaw in the logic...

6. Aug 1, 2005

### Gokul43201

Staff Emeritus
LHS = 1*1 = 1
RHS = 1*1*1* ...(ninety five times) *1 = 1
LHS = 1 = RHS

How do you go from line (1) to line (2) ?

nabodit : If you have a question to ask, ask it now.

7. Aug 1, 2005

### theCandyman

Reading this really brightened up my day. :rofl: