Imaginary Normalisation Constant

In summary, the conversation discusses finding the normalization constant C for a one-dimensional system in a given state represented by Q(x). The correct equation for the product Q(x)Q*(x) is discussed, and it is mentioned that energy eigenstates follow linear superposition and their integral squared is equal to the sum of the integral squared of their individual components. The possibility of an imaginary value for the normalization constant is brought up and it is clarified that the integral of Q1Q2* is zero due to the orthogonality of the wavefunctions. The final result is that C^2 is equal to 5/20.
  • #1
Ruddiger27
14
0

Homework Statement



A one-dimensional system is in a state at time t=0 represented by:

Q(x) = C { (1.6^0.5)Q1(x) - (2.4^0.5)Q2(x)}

Where Qn(x) are normalised eergy eigenfunctions corresponding to different energy eigenvalues, En(n=1,2)

Obtain the normalisation constant C


The Attempt at a Solution



I get C= i(1.2)^0.5 from the following equation:

C^2 * (1.6 (int( Q1 ^2 dx) - 2.4(int ( Q2 ^2 dx = 1

So C^2 has to be -5/4 in order for the above to be true. Is this right?
Just a bit confused over whether it's possible to have an imaginary value for the normalisation constant? Thanks for any help you can give.
 
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  • #2
You haven't formed the product Q(x)Q*(x) correctly. What is special about energy eigenstates?
 
  • #3
they follow linear superposition? so the integral of the total wavefunction squared is equal to the integral of 1.6*Q1^2 plus the integral of 2.4*Q2^2?
 
  • #4
What is Q* equal to ? How do you define the scalar product?

Daniel.
 
  • #5
Well there aren't any imaginary parts to the first wavefunction since its just in the form Q = C ( XQ1 - YQ2) so Q* is just the same as Q.
 
  • #6
Ruddiger27 said:
they follow linear superposition?
What do you know about the integral of Q1Q2*?

so the integral of the total wavefunction squared is equal to the integral of 1.6*Q1^2 plus the integral of 2.4*Q2^2?
Yes. Are you absolutely clear why this is so?
 
  • #7
I would think the integral of Q1Q2* would be zero since these wavefunctions are orthogonal, so I would end up with C^2 =5/20.
 

1. What is an Imaginary Normalisation Constant?

An Imaginary Normalisation Constant is a mathematical term used in quantum mechanics to describe the normalization of wave functions with complex-valued coefficients. It is represented by the symbol "i".

2. Why is an Imaginary Normalisation Constant used?

An Imaginary Normalisation Constant is used to ensure that the probability of finding a particle in a particular state remains constant over time. It also helps to maintain the total probability of all possible states equal to 1.

3. How is an Imaginary Normalisation Constant calculated?

An Imaginary Normalisation Constant is calculated by dividing the square root of the integral of the absolute square of a wave function by the complex conjugate of the wave function. This ensures that the total probability of all possible states is equal to 1.

4. Can an Imaginary Normalisation Constant be negative?

Yes, an Imaginary Normalisation Constant can be negative. This occurs when the phase angle of the wave function is greater than 90 degrees, resulting in a negative value for the imaginary part of the normalisation constant.

5. How does an Imaginary Normalisation Constant affect quantum mechanical calculations?

An Imaginary Normalisation Constant has a significant impact on quantum mechanical calculations as it allows for the accurate determination of probabilities for various states of a particle. It also helps to ensure the consistency and stability of quantum mechanical equations.

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