- #1

- 35

- 0

I am aware that the Riemann Hypothesis claims that all of the critical zeros of the analytically continued zeta function have a real part Re(z)=1/2.

My question is, does the concept apply only to the complex zeros, or the imaginary and real parts separately.

Basically, is it possible to have:

Im(zeta(z))=0

Without having:

Re(zeta(z))=0

Or does a zero of one part automatically illustrate the existence of a zero for the other?