(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

Consider the function f(x)=1/(x^p).

When p>1, the integral of 1/(x^p) from 1 to infinity converges.

i) For what values of p does the integral of 1/(x^p) from 0 to 1 converge? (0<p<infinity, p does not equal 1).

ii) Confirm the answer by re-writing the integral of 1/(x^p) from 0 to 1 in terms of area and an integral in terms of y. Comment on any symmetry/asymmetry that this relation demonstrates).

I did a question similar to this but it was much simpler. I have no idea how to even start with this question. PLEASE HELP!!

3. The attempt at a solution

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# Homework Help: Improper Integral question.

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