1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data Consider the function f(x)=1/(x^p). When p>1, the integral of 1/(x^p) from 1 to infinity converges. i) For what values of p does the integral of 1/(x^p) from 0 to 1 converge? (0<p<infinity, p does not equal 1). ii) Confirm the answer by re-writing the integral of 1/(x^p) from 0 to 1 in terms of area and an integral in terms of y. Comment on any symmetry/asymmetry that this relation demonstrates). 2. Relevant equations 3. The attempt at a solution i) The integral of 1/(x^p) from 0 to 1 is ((1^(-p+1))/(-p+1))-((0^(-p+1))/(-p+1)) When p>1, then 0 will have a negative power and the integral will diverge. Therefore the integral converges for 0<p<1. ii) I have no clue how to do this part since I don't really understand what the question is asking when it says rewrite the integral in terms of area since the integral itself is about evaluating area. And I don't get the part where it asks to comment on symmetry. PLEASE HELP!!!!!!