if I have χψ*ψ term in the Lagrangian, the scattering ψψ→ψψ behaves as if we had a potential (non-rel. limit) Exp(-mr)/r.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

but when I try to calculate the expectation value of χψ*ψ in any state I get zero.

is that a different kind of potential energy? does it have to do with re-normalization?

Thank!!

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# In QFT Lagrangian what is the potential energy exactly?

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