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In SHM, why is T = 1/f ?

  1. Sep 8, 2011 #1
    An object undergoing simple harmonic motion will always have varying acceleration. That means for each unit of time passing by, different distances will be covered within the bounded amplitude. As an example suppose T= 10s. Therefore, f = 1/T = 0.1 Hz(1/10th of a wavelength). This in a way would be like using the unitary method as-
    If time taken for 1 complete oscillation is 10 seconds, then,
    Time taken for 1/ 10 oscillation will be 1 second. (Modifying frequency's definition)

    which cannot be, since thinking of it in that way would mean the body is covering equal distances of 1/10th of an oscillation every second till one time period of 1 second.

    How is this all to be correctly explained ?
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 8, 2011 #2
    Hey, I just figured out the answer..... :)
  4. Sep 8, 2011 #3


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    Looks like you are mixing frequency with amplitude.
  5. Sep 8, 2011 #4
    No. wasn't mixing the two :p but I get what you mean and your logic. anyways, thanks :)
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