1. Nov 21, 2004 #1

   courtrigrad

   

   When they ask you to set up integral formulas for the derivative of 1/(x+1), would you use the fundemental theorem of calculus and set up a definite integral, or an indefinite integral. Can someone help me clarify this?
   
   Thanks

    

   courtrigrad, Nov 21, 2004
2. 
   Phys.org - latest science and technology news stories on Phys.org

   • • Game over? Computer beats human champ in ancient Chinese game
   • • Simplifying solar cells with a new mix of materials
   • • Imaged 'jets' reveal cerium's post-shock inner strength
3. Nov 21, 2004 #2

   Galileo

   

   Science Advisor

   Homework Helper

   Integral formulas are (almost to my knowledge) expressed in indefinite inegrals, since all you need is an antiderivative of the integrand.
   
   i.e.
   [tex]\int\frac{dx}{x}=\ln x+C[/tex]

    

   Galileo, Nov 21, 2004

• Log in with Facebook
• Log in with Twitter

Your name or email address:

Do you already have an account?

• No, create an account now.
• Yes, my password is:
• Forgot your password?

Stay logged in