- #1
Heirot
- 151
- 0
When are to functions y1 = f1(x) and y2 = f2(x) independent? It would apper never, because, we can always write x = f1-1 (y1), and therefore y2 is a function of y1. Every function is dependent of any other function. Generally, dy1/dy2 != 0 for arbitrary functions y1 and y2. Is this reasoning correct?