When are to functions y(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); _{1}= f_{1}(x) and y_{2}= f_{2}(x) independent? It would apper never, because, we can always write x = f_{1}^{-1}(y_{1}), and therefore y2 is a function of y1. Every function is dependent of any other function. Generally, dy_{1}/dy_{2}!= 0 for arbitrary functions y_{1}and y_{2}. Is this reasoning correct?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Independence of two functions

Loading...

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**