# Indeterminate forms

1. Feb 5, 2009

### JG89

I know $$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} (1 + 1/n)^n = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} 1^{\infty}$$, which is an indeterminate form, converging to e in this case. But what if the original sequence is $$a_n = 1^n$$. Then as n tends to infinity, the function converges to 1 (because it's constant and the limit of a constant function is any term of the sequence). Is my reasoning correct here?

EDIT: The original sequence is (1 + 1/n)^n, I messed up my latex.

2. Feb 6, 2009

### arildno

Yes, you are correct.