Cardinality of Infinite Sets: Proving Equality with Finite Subsets

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In summary: I know to show cardinalities are equal I need to be able to construct a bijection between them...This is an important assumption in any argument, and it's something that mathematicians are always working on. Can you tell me more about why it's so important to be able to construct a bijection?This is an important assumption in any argument, and it's something that mathematicians are always working on. Can you tell me more about why it's so important to be able to construct a bijection?
  • #1
ribbon
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Homework Statement


Let S be in finite and, A a subset of S be finite.
Prove that that the cardinality of S = the cardinality of S excluding the subset of A.



Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


We can write out the finite subset A as (x1, x2, ... xn) which can be put into a one to one correspondence with N. S is infinite so a bijection to N is not possible by definition. The cardinality of S excluding A is still uncountable but I don't see why they MUST have the same cardinality.
 
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  • #2
I know to show cardinalities are equal I need to be able to construct a bijection between them...

Bijection between two infinite sets seems confusing.
 
  • #3
Start with something simple. Do you see how to make a bijection between the natural numbers ##\mathbb N## and ##\mathbb N## excluding {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}? It's the same idea.
 
  • #4
LCKurtz said:
Start with something simple. Do you see how to make a bijection between the natural numbers ##\mathbb N## and ##\mathbb N## excluding {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}? It's the same idea.

Sure I'd map 1 from the first set N to say 11, map 2 to 12, 3 to 13...

My bijection would be for n in N (the fully inclusive N) f(n) = n+ 10?
 
  • #5
ribbon said:
Sure I'd map 1 from the first set N to say 11, map 2 to 12, 3 to 13...

My bijection would be for n in N (the fully inclusive N) f(n) = n+ 10?

Sure. Now can you figure out how to use that kind of thinking for your original problem.
 
  • #6
LCKurtz said:
Sure. Now can you figure out how to use that kind of thinking for your original problem.

I guess how I would write it is problematic for me, I understand your idea, take that excluding set A, which is a set from x1 to xn and begin the mapping from a xn + 1. But how do I know my excluded set is ordered, and how do I know that the numbers are consecutively equally spaced the set from 1 to 10 is easy to visualize as an example. But this random set A seems like it could cause problems for the function I would have to write if it isn't as simple.

Or does what I mention even matter when writing a bijection?
 
  • #7
ribbon said:
I guess how I would write it is problematic for me, I understand your idea, take that excluding set A, which is a set from x1 to xn and begin the mapping from a xn + 1. But how do I know my excluded set is ordered, and how do I know that the numbers are consecutively equally spaced the set from 1 to 10 is easy to visualize as an example. But this random set A seems like it could cause problems for the function I would have to write if it isn't as simple.

Or does what I mention even matter when writing a bijection?

You're right, the set in your problem isn't ##\mathbb R##. But it's the idea that counts. Can you find an infinite sequence of distinct points from S where the first N terms of the sequence are the points from A (which has only N points) and the rest are not from A? Then...
 
  • #8
ribbon said:

Homework Statement


Let S be in finite and, A a subset of S be finite.
Prove that that the cardinality of S = the cardinality of S excluding the subset of A.

The Attempt at a Solution


We can write out the finite subset A as (x1, x2, ... xn) which can be put into a one to one correspondence with N. S is infinite so a bijection to N is not possible by definition. The cardinality of S excluding A is still uncountable but I don't see why they MUST have the same cardinality.
You seem to be assuming S is uncountable, but is that really the case? In the problem statement, you simply say S is infinite, so you need to make sure your argument works for both the countably infinite and uncountably infinite cases.
 

1. What is an infinite set?

An infinite set is a set that has an uncountable number of elements. This means that the elements in the set cannot be listed or counted, and the set goes on forever.

2. How do you prove that a set is infinite?

To prove that a set is infinite, you can use a proof by contradiction. This involves assuming that the set is finite and then showing that this leads to a contradiction. Another method is to show that the set has a one-to-one correspondence with a known infinite set, such as the natural numbers.

3. What is a finite set?

A finite set is a set that has a countable number of elements. This means that the elements in the set can be listed and counted, and the set has a definite end.

4. How do you prove that a set is finite?

To prove that a set is finite, you can use the principle of mathematical induction. This involves showing that the set has a starting point and a way to generate the next element, until all elements have been accounted for. You can also show that the set has a one-to-one correspondence with a known finite set, such as the integers.

5. Can a set be both infinite and finite?

No, a set cannot be both infinite and finite. These two terms are mutually exclusive - a set is either one or the other. A set cannot have both an uncountable number of elements and a countable number of elements at the same time.

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