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Infinite potential

  1. Apr 3, 2014 #1
    Potential and wave function

    If a particle comes from +infinite and collides with a potential of the form :

    V = ∞ , x < 0 (I)
    -V0 , 0<x<a (II)
    0 , x≥a (III)

    Is the wave function for region (I) = 0? And for region (II) = A sin(kx) with k constant?

    Really need to know if I'm correct, thanks
    Last edited: Apr 3, 2014
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 3, 2014 #2
    Yes region (I) has a 0 wave function. Region (II) requires a solution to the Schr. equation, but it should be similar to that.
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