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If a particle comes from +infinite and collides with a potential of the form :

V = ∞ , x < 0 (I)

-V0 , 0<x<a (II)

0 , x≥a (III)

Is the wave function for region (I) = 0? And for region (II) = A sin(kx) with k constant?

Really need to know if I'm correct, thanks

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# Infinite potential

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