- #1
DanAbnormal
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Homework Statement
Show that if a function f(x) can be expressed as an infinite power series, then it has the form
f(x) = f(x0) + [tex]\sum^{\infty}_{n = 1}[/tex][tex]\frac{f^{n}(x0)}{n!}[/tex][tex](x - x0)^{}[/tex]
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
I know that for an infinite power series:
= f(a) + [tex]\frac{f'(a)}{1!}[/tex](x - a) + [tex]\frac{f''(a)}{2!}[/tex][tex](x - a)^{2}[/tex]...
which can be simplified into the above expression. But is there any groundwork that the question asks to get to this point here? I am thinking for 6 marsk i can't just right down the two lines...