(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

Show that if a function f(x) can be expressed as an infinite power series, then it has the form

f(x) = f(x0) + [tex]\sum^{\infty}_{n = 1}[/tex][tex]\frac{f^{n}(x0)}{n!}[/tex][tex](x - x0)^{}[/tex]

2. Relevant equations

3. The attempt at a solution

I know that for an infinite power series:

= f(a) + [tex]\frac{f'(a)}{1!}[/tex](x - a) + [tex]\frac{f''(a)}{2!}[/tex][tex](x - a)^{2}[/tex]....

which can be simplified into the above expression. But is there any groundwork that the question asks to get to this point here? Im thinking for 6 marsk i cant just right down the two lines...

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# Infinite power series

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