I was looking at this topic: http://mathoverflow.net/questions/1...country-in-which-people-only-want-boys-closed(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

And the top answer uses the fact that the sum from 1 to infinity of 1/(x2^x) is log 2. Why is this true?

Thanks in advance.

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# Infinite series problem

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