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Infinite speed of time

  1. Apr 30, 2010 #1
    I read on wikipedia that time goes slower in higher gravitational fields,

    I also know that 'inside' a black hole time stands still.
    (simplified, I know)

    Does this mean that in places where the gravitational field is extremely low (far apart from galaxies and any other objects having mass) time goes infinitely fast?

    So that if you would travel through such a place and the only gravity that wouldn't be neglectable is the one formed by your own mass and thus time proceeds extremely fast there?

    just asking,

  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 30, 2010 #2
    The right to think about, I guess, it's that when you are here or here, you measure some time.

    Every observer has some rules and some clocks to measure time.

    Now suppose the twin paradox. The thing that actually happens is that their clocks will not measure the same amount of time, but time will pass as usual for both

    The reason of this, it's the Lorentz Transformations, wich are the ones you should use when relativistic effects are not negligible. this is, when speeds are not small when compared to the speed of light in vacuum, and when the distances travelled are long enough (I'm sorry but i do not know what long enough actually means in this context, but think about astronomical scale of course)
  4. Apr 30, 2010 #3
    I thought that the 'solution' to the twin paradox was that first the traveling twin was traveling away from his earthsick brother with two different reference frames, but traveling back he travels in a third reference frame, one that is the inverse of his first one, eliminating any gain or lose in time made...

    -> what is the difference between time passing by and measure it's progress?
    -> the Lorenz transformations apply to the length of the moving object, not to the distance traveled
    -> suppose for simplicity of argument that the speed indeed is nowhere near the speed of light, say the speed of sound or something...

  5. May 1, 2010 #4
    No, time would not be infinite. It would be "normal" time (no time dilation). Just let r go to infinity in the equation and you will see that time is not changed.
  6. May 1, 2010 #5
    For some reason I always forget to check the equations :s.

    It would have been cool though :)


    ps: in the formula on wikipedia
    you can also set M to 0, same result (obviously)...
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