Infinite vs Expanding Universe: A Physics Conundrum Explained

In summary, the conversation is discussing the two possible explanations for the universe's expansion- that it is expanding into something or that the space itself is expanding. The first option is inconclusive because we need to measure a differential change on a boundary to define expansion, which we don't currently have the technology to do. The second option- that the space itself is expanding- is supported by evidence that the universe is expanding at a faster rate than the speed of light.
  • #71
Drakkith said:
Hi Ken. What are your thoughts on when we can reasonably say that the predictions of GR probably aren't correct?
I don't think we can say when a prediction probably isn't correct, we simply have to test it. What is the track record of theories that we thought were probably not correct, versus ones we probably thought were? It's cherry picking, but still I'd say that track record is not good at all. For example:
We thought for thousands of years that geocentric models were probably correct and would not significantly change in the future.
We thought for hundreds of years that Galilean relativity was probably correct, so when Maxwell's equations treated the speed of light as a constant of the theory, most physicists thought that had to be incorrect.
Eddington thought that Chandrasekhar's theory of white dwarfs was probably incorrect because it predicted a maximum mass, above which no static solution was possible without drastic changes to the star. He reasoned that something missing from Chandrasekhar's approach would guarantee stability.
Einstein thought that quantum mechanics had to be wrong because it violated local realism.
And so on.
 
  • Like
Likes Drakkith
Astronomy news on Phys.org
  • #72
phinds said:
Yes, Aleph1 + 1 = Aleph1 and Aleph2 +1 = Aleph2. That does NOT make Aleph1 identical to, or similar to, Aleph2
So do the infinite sets of natural numbers and whole numbers have the same or different Aleph numbers? Wikipedia is saying that natural numbers have an Aleph number of 0 (Aleph-naught). It doesn't mention whole numbers, but whole numbers are just natural numbers with 0. Is it safe to assume infinite series of whole numbers also has Aleph number of 0?
 
  • #73
Comeback City said:
So do the infinite sets of natural numbers and whole numbers have the same or different Aleph numbers? Wikipedia is saying that natural numbers have an Aleph number of 0 (Aleph-naught). It doesn't mention whole numbers, but whole numbers are just natural numbers with 0. Is it safe to assume infinite series of whole numbers also has Aleph number of 0?
Yes, they are the same. It's the reals, as I recall, that is the first instance of Aleph1
 
  • Like
Likes Comeback City
  • #74
phinds said:
Yes, they are the same. It's the reals, as I recall, that is the first instance of Aleph1
The continuum hypothesis is the statement that the cardinality of the reals is Aleph 1. Its truth or falsity is not decidable (under the usual axioms of set theory).
 

Similar threads

Replies
17
Views
2K
  • Astronomy and Astrophysics
Replies
12
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • Astronomy and Astrophysics
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • Special and General Relativity
Replies
3
Views
973
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • Cosmology
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • Astronomy and Astrophysics
4
Replies
106
Views
10K
  • High Energy, Nuclear, Particle Physics
Replies
7
Views
1K
Back
Top