1. Aug 24, 2005 #1

   Ratzinger

   

   infinitely differentiable doesn't care if all the higher derivatives are zeroes (like for polynomials), it only has to be defined...correct?

    

   Ratzinger, Aug 24, 2005
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3. Aug 24, 2005 #2

   AKG

   

   Science Advisor

   Homework Helper

   Correct......

    

   AKG, Aug 24, 2005
4. Aug 24, 2005 #3

   Hurkyl

   

   Staff Emeritus

   Science Advisor

   Gold Member

   It's okay for them to all be zero as well!
   
   such as for
   
   [tex]
   f(x) = \left\{
   \begin{array}{ll}
   0 & x = 0 \\
   e^{-1/x^2} \quad & x \neq 0
   \end{array}
   [/tex]
   
   at x = 0.

    

   Hurkyl, Aug 24, 2005

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