1. Aug 24, 2005 #1

   Ratzinger

   

   infinitely differentiable doesn't care if all the higher derivatives are zeroes (like for polynomials), it only has to be defined...correct?

    

   Ratzinger, Aug 24, 2005
2. 
   Phys.org - latest science and technology news stories on Phys.org

   • • Scarlet macaw DNA points to ancient breeding operation in Southwest
   • • Mathematicians solve age-old spaghetti mystery
   • • New technology can detect hundreds of proteins in a single sample
3. Aug 24, 2005 #2

   AKG

   

   Science Advisor

   Homework Helper

   Correct......

    

   AKG, Aug 24, 2005
4. Aug 24, 2005 #3

   Hurkyl

   

   Staff Emeritus

   Science Advisor

   Gold Member

   It's okay for them to all be zero as well!
   
   such as for
   
   [tex]
   f(x) = \left\{
   \begin{array}{ll}
   0 & x = 0 \\
   e^{-1/x^2} \quad & x \neq 0
   \end{array}
   [/tex]
   
   at x = 0.

    

   Hurkyl, Aug 24, 2005

• Log in with Facebook
• Log in with Twitter

Your name or email address:

Do you already have an account?

• No, create an account now.
• Yes, my password is:
• Forgot your password?

Stay logged in