- #1
Mishra
- 55
- 1
Hello,
In the context of QFT, I do not understand the statement:
##\frac{\delta \phi(x)}{\delta \phi(y)}=\delta (x-y)##
I understand the proof which arises from the definition of the functional derivative but I do not get its meaning. From what I see is generalizes ##\frac{\partial q_i}{\partial q_j}=\delta_{ij}## which I am not sure to understand either.
Would somebody be kind enough to explain me ?
I realize this is not a question concerning QFT only but it is where I have the better chance to find a good answer since it is fundamental in that field.VM
In the context of QFT, I do not understand the statement:
##\frac{\delta \phi(x)}{\delta \phi(y)}=\delta (x-y)##
I understand the proof which arises from the definition of the functional derivative but I do not get its meaning. From what I see is generalizes ##\frac{\partial q_i}{\partial q_j}=\delta_{ij}## which I am not sure to understand either.
Would somebody be kind enough to explain me ?
I realize this is not a question concerning QFT only but it is where I have the better chance to find a good answer since it is fundamental in that field.VM