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Infinum of a Set

  1. Sep 24, 2008 #1

    I need to show that inf(x_n)=1

    For someone reason this is proving to be more difficult than I thought, could someone pleas help?
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 24, 2008 #2


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    It would be a little clearer if you defined x_0. Also your notation is a little strange - frac{1}{x} means what? I am guessing it means the fractional part, but I am not sure.
  4. Sep 24, 2008 #3


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    Welcome to PF!

    Hi hockey777! Welcome to PF! :smile:

    Hint: start by subtracting 1 from each side. :wink:

    (and type [noparse][tex] before and [/tex] after your equations![/noparse] :smile:)
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