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Inner Product

  1. Mar 27, 2010 #1
    Last two inner product questions.

    The first one I am little confused on and the second one I don't know what to do.

    See worked attached.
     

    Attached Files:

  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 27, 2010 #2

    vela

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    What are you confused about?
     
  4. Mar 27, 2010 #3
    I don't know how to do it so I am confused on what to do.
     
  5. Mar 27, 2010 #4

    vela

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    If two vectors are orthogonal, what does that mean about their inner product? And what does it mean to say a vector is a unit vector?
     
  6. Mar 27, 2010 #5

    Mark44

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    For the first one, show that <cos(mx), sin(nx)> = 0. Also show that <cos(mx), cos(mx)> = 1 and that <sin(nx), sin(nx)> = 1.

    For the second one, you're showing that the "1 norm" is a norm on Rn. Verify that the formula satisfies all the defining properties of a norm: positive definiteness, etc. BTW, this norm simply adds the absolute values of the coordinates of a vector. For example, in R3, ||<2, -1, 3>||1 = |2| + |-1| + |3| = 6.
     
  7. Mar 27, 2010 #6
    How can I integrate cos(mx)*sin(nx) when they don't have the same angle?
     
  8. Mar 27, 2010 #7

    vela

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    Use a trig identity to rewrite the product of a sine and a cosine.
     
  9. Mar 27, 2010 #8
    For the second problem, I don't know how to start the proof.
     
  10. Mar 27, 2010 #9

    Mark44

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    Integration by parts twice would probably work, or you could look in a table of integrals. Since this isn't about learning to integrate, but is instead and application of integration, it seems reasonable to me to look it up in a table of integrals.
     
  11. Mar 27, 2010 #10
    On the integration by parts comment, I have an unrelated issue. I was doing a Laplace Transform of e^(-st+t)*sin(t) but after doing integration by parts, I had a form of the original with a 1/(s-1) time the integral so I cant subtract across to the other side. What can I do there since if I keep going it will an endless cyclical cycle?
     
  12. Mar 27, 2010 #11
    I have attached a update that show cos(mx) and sin(nx) are orthogonal; however, showing cos(mx) cos(mx) equals 1 isn't quite working.
     

    Attached Files:

  13. Mar 27, 2010 #12

    vela

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    It didn't say it explicitly in the problem statement, but you need to assume m and n are integers. What is sine evaluated at any multiple of 2π?
     
  14. Mar 27, 2010 #13
    If they are integers, then of course sin goes to zero.
     
  15. Mar 28, 2010 #14

    Mark44

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    Can you elaborate on this a bit more? You haven't said quite enough so that I'm not sure I understand what you're talking about. If you have a given integral on one side, and 1/(s - 1) times the same integral on the other side, add -1/(s - 1) times the integral to both sides, and then combine the two integrals using the rules of plain old fractions. At that point you can solve for the integral algebraically.

    If that's not what you're talking about, set me straight, please.
     
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