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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Is there any function (if any) f: Z -> Z such that

f(f(n))=-n , for every n belongs to Z(integers) ??

I think that there is not any function like the one described above but how can we prove it. Any ideas??

Thanks in Advance

f(f(n))=-n , for every n belongs to Z(integers) ??

I think that there is not any function like the one described above but how can we prove it. Any ideas??

Thanks in Advance