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I wanted to know whether the following two relations are same.

[tex]

\int x\;f(x)\;{\rm d}x = {\rm A}

[/tex]

and

[tex]

\int (x-{\rm A})\;f(x)\;{\rm d}x = 0

[/tex]

are same?

'A' is some positive number, distribution function f(x) is normalized to 1. (i am trying to understand some details of first moment of f(x) and got this doubt.)

thanks.

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# Integral calculus help

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