- #1
Natasha1
- 493
- 8
I have been asked to explain without evaluating the integrals why the integral of x cos x from 0 to pi/2 is positive and the integral of x cos x from pi/2 to pi is negative. Also would I expect x cos x from 0 to pi to be positive, zero or negative? And why ?
How can I do this without evaluting it?
some help would be much appreciated, thanks!
How can I do this without evaluting it?