- #1

Natasha1

- 493

- 8

**without evaluating the integrals**why the integral of x cos x from 0 to pi/2 is positive and the integral of x cos x from pi/2 to pi is negative. Also would I expect x cos x from 0 to pi to be positive, zero or negative? And why ?

How can I do this without evaluting it? some help would be much appreciated, thanks!