Integral of 1+sin(x) all over cos(x)^2

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In summary, The best way to solve this integral is by writing the fraction as the sum of two fractions and integrating each separately. The first term is a standard antiderivative, while the second term can be solved using a substitution, specifically y = cos(x).
  • #1
Giuseppe
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I was wondering what the best way to do this integral was:

Integral of 1+sin(x) all over cos(x)^2

Is subsitution the best way?
 
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  • #2
The easiest way is to write the fraction as the sum of fractions ((a+b)/c = a/c + b/c)) and integrate the first and second terms of the sum separately. One is a basic antiderivative and the other is a simple substitution.
 
  • #3
So what hypermorphism means is that you do:

[tex]\int {\frac{{1 + \sin x}}{{\cos ^2 x}}} dx = \int {\frac{1}{{\cos ^2 x}}} dx + \int {\frac{{\sin x}}{{\cos ^2 x}}} dx[/tex]

As he said, the first one is a standard antiderivative, for the second one try [itex]y = \cos x[/itex]
 

1. What does the integral of 1+sin(x) all over cos(x)^2 represent?

The integral of 1+sin(x) all over cos(x)^2 represents the area under the curve of the function 1+sin(x) divided by the square of the function cos(x). This area can be interpreted as the total change in the function over a given interval.

2. How do you solve the integral of 1+sin(x) all over cos(x)^2?

To solve the integral of 1+sin(x) all over cos(x)^2, you can use the substitution method. Let u = cos(x) and du = -sin(x)dx. After substitution, the integral becomes -1/u^2 du, which can then be easily integrated to -1/u + C. Finally, substituting back in for u, we get -1/cos(x) + C as the final solution.

3. Can the integral of 1+sin(x) all over cos(x)^2 be evaluated using other methods?

Yes, the integral of 1+sin(x) all over cos(x)^2 can also be evaluated using the trigonometric identity tan^2(x) = sec^2(x) - 1. By substituting this identity into the integral, we can then use the power rule to solve for the integral.

4. What is the domain of the function 1+sin(x) all over cos(x)^2?

The domain of the function 1+sin(x) all over cos(x)^2 is all real numbers except for values of x where cos(x) = 0, as this would result in a division by 0 error. Therefore, the domain is (-infinity, -pi/2) U (-pi/2, pi/2) U (pi/2, infinity).

5. Can the integral of 1+sin(x) all over cos(x)^2 be interpreted geometrically?

Yes, the integral of 1+sin(x) all over cos(x)^2 can be interpreted geometrically as the area under the curve of the function divided by the square of another function. This area can also be interpreted as the total change in the function over a given interval, as mentioned in the answer to the first question.

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