Is the Integral of Cosine Function Always Zero?

In summary, the conjecture states that if f is any function, then the integral from -pi to pi equals the integral from 0 to 2pi.
  • #1
daudaudaudau
302
0
Hi. I have been experimenting a little to come up with the following "conjecture"
[tex]
\int_0^{2\pi}d\phi f(a+b\cos\phi)\sin\phi=0
[/tex]
where a and b are arbitrary constants and f(x) is any function. Is this true? I guess it can be shown by expanding f in a power series of cosines?
 
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  • #2
hi daudaudaudau! :smile:

doesn't work for f = √, a = b :wink:
 
  • #3
Yes, I'm getting that that this is true. It can be proven using the substitution
[tex]x=\cos{\phi}[/tex]
[tex]dx=-\sin{\phi}d\phi[/tex]
But this substitution is not 1-to-1: Each x value corresponds to 2 phi values on [0,2pi]. So you need to break the region of integration into [0,pi] and [pi,2pi]. If you look at the graph of the cos function, you will see it is 1-to-1 on these two intervals and goes from 1 to -1 on [0,pi] and from -1 to 1 on [pi,2pi]. So the integral becomes:
[tex]
\int_0^{2\pi}d\phi f(a+b\cos\phi)\sin\phi= \int_1^{-1}-f(a+bx)dx + \int_{-1}^{1}-f(a+bx)dx = \int_{-1}^{1}f(a+bx)dx + \int_{-1}^{1}-f(a+bx)dx = 0 [/tex]Tiny-tim: I get this even in the example you gave.
 
  • #4
hmm … i think I've been misled by the ambiguity of the √ function :redface:

yes, we can get it directly from the original integral …

if f = g', then it's ∫ [g(a + bcosφ)]' dφ, = [g(a + bcosφ)]φ=0
 
  • #5
tiny-tim said:
hmm … i think I've been misled by the ambiguity of the √ function :redface:

yes, we can get it directly from the original integral …

if f = g', then it's ∫ [g(a + bcosφ)]' dφ, = [g(a + bcosφ)]φ=0

Happens to everyone :wink:
That is a better way of proving it.
 
  • #6
tiny-tim said:
hmm … i think I've been misled by the ambiguity of the √ function :redface:

yes, we can get it directly from the original integral …

if f = g', then it's ∫ [g(a + bcosφ)]' dφ, = [g(a + bcosφ)]φ=0

What happened to the sine function?
 
  • #7
chain rule :wink:
 
  • #8
clever :-)
 
  • #9
The integral from -pi to pi is zero, because you are integrating an odd function.

And the integral from -pi to pi equals the integral from 0 to 2pi.

QED.
 

What is the integral of cosine function?

The integral of cosine function is a mathematical operation that represents the area under the curve of the cosine function. It is denoted by ∫cos(x) dx and can be calculated using various techniques, such as integration by parts or substitution.

What is the relationship between the integral of cosine function and the derivative of sine function?

The integral of cosine function is closely related to the derivative of sine function. Specifically, the integral of cosine function is equal to the derivative of sine function, up to a constant value. This relationship is known as the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus.

What is the general formula for the integral of cosine function?

The general formula for the integral of cosine function is ∫cos(x) dx = sin(x) + C, where C is the constant of integration. This formula can be used to solve definite and indefinite integrals of cosine function.

How do you solve definite integrals of cosine function?

To solve definite integrals of cosine function, you can use the general formula ∫cos(x) dx = sin(x) + C and evaluate the integral at the upper and lower limits of integration. Then, subtract the value at the lower limit from the value at the upper limit to get the definite integral.

What are some real-life applications of the integral of cosine function?

The integral of cosine function has various real-life applications, such as in physics, engineering, and economics. It is used to calculate the displacement, velocity, and acceleration of oscillating systems, such as pendulums and springs. It is also used in calculating the work done by a force over a distance and in determining the average value of a periodic function.

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