Hi all,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

we know that the integral of tan(x) is -ln(cos(x)).

Now:

-ln(cos(x)) is only defined where cos(x) > 0. BUT tan(x) is defined everywhere except where cos(x) = 0.

My questions:

1) How can we alter the 1st statement so that the tangent has an integral everywhere it is defined?

2) Can you give a formal proof for that better statement?

Thx,

Carsten

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Integral of tangent

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**