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we know that the integral of tan(x) is -ln(cos(x)).

Now:

-ln(cos(x)) is only defined where cos(x) > 0. BUT tan(x) is defined everywhere except where cos(x) = 0.

My questions:

1) How can we alter the 1st statement so that the tangent has an integral everywhere it is defined?

2) Can you give a formal proof for that better statement?

Thx,

Carsten

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# Integral of tangent

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