Integrate [itex]\int_0^1\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}dx[/itex]

  • Thread starter funcalys
  • Start date
  • #1
funcalys
30
1

Homework Statement


[itex]\int_0^1\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}dx[/itex]


Homework Equations


[itex]\int \frac{\sin (\pi x)}{1-x}=Si(\pi-\pi x)[/itex]


The Attempt at a Solution


I was stuck on the above integral while solving an exercise, I found out earlier on Wolfram that this integral doesn't probably have an elementary antiderivative representation so I cannot just calculate it directly by Newton-Leibniz formula. Integration by parts is not very viable in this case also. Maybe this needs the notion of contour integration to be solved? Any idea guys?
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
haruspex
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
Insights Author
Gold Member
2022 Award
39,566
8,830
Have you tried expanding the denominator as a power series?
 
  • #3
funcalys
30
1
Yeah, looks like it yielded some positive results finally , thanks very much for your help.
 
  • #4
funcalys
30
1
Oh, I did expand the denominator as a power series and then integrate term by term by resulting series, but I can't proceed to the next step. The general formula for arbitrary k is too complicated for me.
 
  • #5
HallsofIvy
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
43,021
973
Then stop with some finite power for an approximation.
 
  • #6
Ray Vickson
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
Dearly Missed
10,706
1,722
Oh, I did expand the denominator as a power series and then integrate term by term by resulting series, but I can't proceed to the next step. The general formula for arbitrary k is too complicated for me.

If you change variables to t = 1-x you will get the value of the integral as ##I = \text{Si}(\pi),## where
[tex] \text{Si}(x) = \int_0^x \frac{\sin(t)}{t} \, dt.[/tex] You can very easily expand ##\sin(t)## in a power series and get a very straightforward series for ##\text{Si}(x)## in powers of x. That will give you a simple-enough series for I in powers of ##\pi##.
 
  • #7
funcalys
30
1
Thank HallsofIvy.
If you change variables to t = 1-x you will get the value of the integral as ##I = \text{Si}(\pi),## where
[tex] \text{Si}(x) = \int_0^x \frac{\sin(t)}{t} \, dt.[/tex] You can very easily expand ##\sin(t)## in a power series and get a very straightforward series for ##\text{Si}(x)## in powers of x. That will give you a simple-enough series for I in powers of ##\pi##.
This seems like the most plausible way to handle that imo :biggrin:. Thanks.
 
  • #8
Ray Vickson
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
Dearly Missed
10,706
1,722
Thank HallsofIvy.

This seems like the most plausible way to handle that imo :biggrin:. Thanks.

Numerical integration methods such as Simpson's rule should work well also.
 

Suggested for: Integrate [itex]\int_0^1\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}dx[/itex]

  • Last Post
Replies
5
Views
423
Replies
7
Views
743
  • Last Post
2
Replies
54
Views
3K
  • Last Post
Replies
9
Views
375
  • Last Post
Replies
3
Views
490
Replies
44
Views
2K
Replies
22
Views
313
Replies
3
Views
389
Top