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[tex]

\int_{0}^{V_{DS}}V(X)\, dV(X)=\frac{V_{DS}^2}{2}[/tex]

I can see that integrating a function F(X) with respect to F(X) turns out to be the same as integrating a single variable such as x with respect to x, but is that mathematically kosher? Can someone convince me that it is?