I have seen the wikipedia's proof which can be found here: https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Integration_by_Substitution(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

However sometimes, we have problems where you have a ##d(x)## times ## f(g(x))## times g prime of x where we use substitution and it works but the proof didn't prove this condition..

I was wondering if you can prove why it works through infinite sums like for example

##( f(g(x)) g^{'}(x) dx + f(g(x+dx)) g^{'}(x+dx) dx + ..... ) ##

If I can change that to this

##( f(y) dy + f(y+dy) dy + .... ## where you set y = g(x)

It would statisfy me.. But is it possible to prove it using this?

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# B Integration by substitution

Have something to add?

Draft saved
Draft deleted

Loading...

Similar Threads - Integration substitution | Date |
---|---|

B Not following an integral solution | Jun 16, 2017 |

B Does integration commute with substitution t=0? | May 16, 2017 |

A Analytical Integration of a Difficult Function | Apr 27, 2017 |

I Need a little push on this integral using trig substitution. | Mar 15, 2017 |

I Multi-dimensional Integral by Change of Variables | Feb 12, 2017 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**