- #1

- 132

- 1

i have no idea where to even start. i know the derivative of arctan is

[tex] \frac{1}{x^2+1} [/tex] so i would assume that the integral would be the opposite?

but i am supposed to prove that [tex] (arctan(u))=u(arctan(u))-\frac{1}{2}ln(1+u^2)+C [/tex]

i am completely lost please help...any input is much appreciated.