Integrate Cosx/1+sinx dx: No Parts Needed

  • Thread starter HermitOfThebes
  • Start date
  • Tags
    Integration
In summary: You're saying that because sinx/1+cosx is tan(x/2), \frac{d}{dx}(1+sinx) = cosx. But why would I differentiate? nvm. I see what you're saying. You're saying that because sinx/1+cosx is tan(x/2), \frac{d}{dx}(1+sinx) = cosx. But why would I differentiate?
  • #1
HermitOfThebes
25
0

Homework Statement


Integrate Cosx/1+sinx dx from 0 to pi/2. "The question does not assume knowledge of integration by parts."

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Could it be found using the quotient rule?
If not, is there any way of proving it without using integration by parts?

Mod note: Edited this post by moving text, to comply with our rules about including an attempt.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
HermitOfThebes said:

Homework Statement


Integrate Cosx/1+sinx dx from 0 to pi/2. "The question does not assume knowledge of integration by parts."
Could it be found using the quotient rule?
If not, is there any way of proving it without using integration by parts?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution

The quotient rule is for taking the derivative of the quotient of two functions. There is no quotient rule for integration as such.

Since IBP is off limits, look at the relationship between cos (x) and (1 + sin (x)). Notice anything special?
 
  • #3
I assume you mean ##\frac{cos(x)}{1+ sin(x)} ##.
Immediately I came up with this trick you might try.
##\frac{cos(x)}{1+ sin(x)}
\frac{1 - sin(x)}{1 - sin(x)} = \frac{cos(x)(1+sin(x))}{(1-sin^2 x)} = ??##
These integrals can be solved by substitution. Integration by parts is not necessary. There are essentially no general product or quotient rules for integrals besides integration by parts. But this particular integral can be solved with other techniques such as substitution.
 
  • #4
MisterX said:
I assume you mean ##\frac{cos(x)}{1+ sin(x)} ##.
Immediately I came up with this trick you might try.
##\frac{cos(x)}{1+ sin(x)}
\frac{1 - sin(x)}{1 - sin(x)} = \frac{cos(x)(1+sin(x))}{(1-sin^2 x)} = ??##
These integrals can be solved by substitution. Integration by parts is not necessary. There are essentially no general product or quotient rules for integrals besides integration by parts. But this particular integral can be solved with other techniques such as substitution.
This is much more complicated than just checking out the relationship between the cosine and (1 + sine).
 
  • #5
SteamKing said:
This is much more complicated than just checking out the relationship between the cosine and (1 + sine).
You are right. HermitOfThebes, ignore my post.
 
  • #6
What's the derivative of sine?

Can you see a neat substitution you could make?
 
  • #7
SteamKing said:
The quotient rule is for taking the derivative of the quotient of two functions. There is no quotient rule for integration as such.

Since IBP is off limits, look at the relationship between cos (x) and (1 + sin (x)). Notice anything special?
I know that sinx/1+cosx is tan(x/2). I can't quite see the relationship though.
 
  • #8
HermitOfThebes said:
I know that sinx/1+cosx is tan(x/2). I can't quite see the relationship though.

What is [itex]\frac{d}{dx}(1 + \sin x)[/itex]?

(Also, please use brackets: sin(x)/1 + cos(x) means [itex]\frac{\sin(x)}{1} + \cos(x)[/itex]. You want sin(x)/(1 + cos(x)).
 
  • #9
pasmith said:
What is [itex]\frac{d}{dx}(1 + \sin x)[/itex]?

(Also, please use brackets: sin(x)/1 + cos(x) means [itex]\frac{\sin(x)}{1} + \cos(x)[/itex]. You want sin(x)/(1 + cos(x)).
d/dx (1+sinx) = cosx. But why would I differentiate?
 
  • #10
HermitOfThebes said:
d/dx (1+sinx) = cosx. But why would I differentiate?
nvm. I see what you're saying.
 
Last edited:

1. What is the formula for integrating cosx/1+sinx dx without using parts?

The formula for integrating cosx/1+sinx dx without using parts is:∫cosx/(1+sinx) dx = ln|1+sinx| + C

2. Can this integral be solved using substitution?

Yes, this integral can be solved using the substitution u = 1+sinx.

3. What is the benefit of using the no parts method for this integral?

The benefit of using the no parts method is that it is a quicker and easier method compared to using integration by parts. It also avoids the potential for making mistakes in the integration process.

4. Is there a specific domain for which this formula is valid?

This formula is valid for all values of x except for when sinx = -1, as this would result in division by 0.

5. Can this formula be used for other trigonometric functions?

No, this formula is only valid for the specific integral cosx/1+sinx dx. Other trigonometric functions have different integration formulas that cannot be solved using this method.

Similar threads

  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
3
Views
344
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
8
Views
1K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
5
Views
904
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
2
Replies
54
Views
8K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
16
Views
3K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
10
Views
5K
Back
Top