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Integration question

  1. Jul 9, 2008 #1
    hi guys just a quick proof i need help with please:

    if a = pi / (2-b)

    prove the integral from 0 to pi/2 of d(b) / [1 + tan(b)] equals the integral from 0 to pi/2 of

    d(a) / [1 + cot(a)]

    cheers guys!
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 9, 2008 #2


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    I don't quite see how to get that answer yet, but I'd start doing the change of variables properly.
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