1. Sep 14, 2005 #1

   eljose

   

   Let be the integral equation:
   
   [tex]\int_{a}^{b}dyK(x,y)f(y)=g(x)[/tex]where f is unknown and g is known, then i use a resolvent Kernel in the form:
   
   [tex]\int_{a}^{b}dyR(x,y)g(y)=f(x) [/tex] where we obtain the Kernel R by:
   
   [tex]R=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}b_{n}(K-I)^{n}[/tex] the last is Neumann series for the Kernel operator R..is my approach always true?..thanks.

    

   eljose, Sep 14, 2005
2. 
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3. Sep 14, 2005 #2

   HallsofIvy

   

   Science Advisor

   Yes, that will work. It's a bit tedious in some cases.

    

   HallsofIvy, Sep 14, 2005

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