- #1
Aditya89
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Hey guys, u know how Euclid proved that primes r infinite. Now knowing that primes r infinite, if we take some primes p1, p2, p3,...,pn then will p1*p2*...*pn(+/-)1 always be prime?
Muzza said:No. 5 - 1 and 5 + 1 are not prime, for example.
if we take some primes p1, p2, p3,...,pn then will p1*p2*...*pn(+/-)1 always be prime?
Since 5 is not a product of primes, I don't see how that is relevant.
The thing to be proved is that if we find the product of some first n consecutive terms...
...if we take some primes p1, p2, p3,...,pn then will p1*p2*...*pn(+/-)1 always be prime?
But anyway Aditya wants us to prove that they are always prime.
You don't read Aditya's post.
Read my post and prove or disprove it if you can.
vaishakh said:You don't read Aditya's post.
HallsofIvy said:I'm still not clear if the product p1p2...pn+ 1 where the product is of all primes less than or equal to pn is necessarily prime. I suspect it isn't but don't see a proof.
Prime numbers are positive integers that are only divisible by 1 and themselves. Examples of prime numbers include 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, and so on.
No, not all products of prime numbers are prime themselves. For example, 2 x 3 = 6, which is not a prime number.
Prime number multiplication refers to the process of multiplying two or more prime numbers together to get a product. For example, 2 x 3 = 6, where 2 and 3 are prime numbers.
No, the result is not always a prime number. It depends on the specific prime numbers being multiplied together. For example, 5 x 7 = 35, which is not a prime number.
Yes, there are some rules and patterns that can help determine if the result of prime number multiplication will be prime. For example, if the two prime numbers being multiplied together are both odd, then the result will always be even and therefore not prime. Additionally, if the sum of the digits in the product is divisible by 3, then the product is not prime.