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Inverse function fourier

  1. Nov 9, 2012 #1

    Does anyone know if there is a relation between the fourier transform of a function and the fourier transform of the inverse function

    in summary
    FT[f(x)] ?= FT[f-1(x)]

  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 12, 2012 #2
    Logically they must be related because a 1-1 function uniquely determines its own inverse. Therefore, the Fourier transforms are at least related through this indirect relationship. However, I don't think there is any reasonable formula to relate the two. The Fourier transform does not interact with composition of functions in a simple way.
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