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Buw why can we do this when we want to find the inverse functions? If we got y=f(x) and want to find the inverse we take g(f(x))=x. But how is this related to the first thing I did?

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- #1

- 49

- 0

Buw why can we do this when we want to find the inverse functions? If we got y=f(x) and want to find the inverse we take g(f(x))=x. But how is this related to the first thing I did?

- #2

HallsofIvy

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Since y= f(x), g(f(x))= x is the same as g(y)= x.

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