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Inverse laplace transform

  1. Jun 6, 2012 #1
    <deleted>
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jun 6, 2012 #2
    those denominators are equal, trust me. Are you experiecned with completing the square; it's a good method to have down for calculus. Here's how I would have gone about it.

    [itex]x^2-2x+5=x^2-2x+1+4=(x-1)^2+4[/itex]

    Right? Because to copmplete the square you take half of -2 and square it, which is 1.
     
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