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Inverse of an operator

  1. Apr 23, 2013 #1
    is this true?

    (1/ηαβαβ)= ηαβαβ

    any help,pls!!
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 23, 2013 #2


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    Of course not. The inverse of the D'Alembertian is not equal to itself, it's not even a differential operator, but rather a distribution.
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