This is a physics problem, but I have some trouble finishing it up. I evaluated an integral, which gave me(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

inv tan of (1-E)tan(theta/2)/(sqrt (1-E^2)

evaluated from 0 to 2pi. I changed the limits to 0 to pi, and multipied by 2, because tan x doesn't exist at 2pi.

I know that if you take the inverse tangent of a tangent, you'll just get the angle. But because the tan has this ugly coefficient, I can't simply get the angle, right?

The answer is pi/2 so I'm inclined to just ignore it...but I know you can't do that...?

Thanks a lot!

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Inverse trig fuction

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**