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This is a physics problem, but I have some trouble finishing it up. I evaluated an integral, which gave me

inv tan of (1-E)tan(theta/2)/(sqrt (1-E^2)

evaluated from 0 to 2pi. I changed the limits to 0 to pi, and multipied by 2, because tan x doesn't exist at 2pi.

I know that if you take the inverse tangent of a tangent, you'll just get the angle. But because the tan has this ugly coefficient, I can't simply get the angle, right?

The answer is pi/2 so I'm inclined to just ignore it...but I know you can't do that...?

Thanks a lot!

inv tan of (1-E)tan(theta/2)/(sqrt (1-E^2)

evaluated from 0 to 2pi. I changed the limits to 0 to pi, and multipied by 2, because tan x doesn't exist at 2pi.

I know that if you take the inverse tangent of a tangent, you'll just get the angle. But because the tan has this ugly coefficient, I can't simply get the angle, right?

The answer is pi/2 so I'm inclined to just ignore it...but I know you can't do that...?

Thanks a lot!

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