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I Inversion of Euler angles

  1. Aug 2, 2016 #1
    The well known Euler angles (αβγ) are defined as in the image

    It is easy to see that under inversion
    α → π+α
    β → π-β
    but I cannot figure out how γ transforms under inversion. actually I am stuck at the question whether I should measure it from the same intersection line ON (thence γ →π+γ) or if the latter is also inverted (I think then I will have γ→γ)
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 3, 2016 #2
    First, I'm not convinced that the two formulas you have are, in fact, "easy to see." Second, I don't understand how this question falls under the category of topology or analysis.
  4. Mar 4, 2017 #3
    Oops! Then I am moving my question to general math
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