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http://irodovsolutionsmechanics.blogspot.com/2008_02_16_archive.html

here is the official solution to the problem, it's same as in Singh's book and the answer is also correct. But I simply cannot understand it. How can the force F be smaller than the sum of the sliding friction forces?

Also, if we take m1 to be negligable, then the force necessary would be the Frictional force on m2/2. How does that work out? Also, that would me that to move the m1 would be harder, if we applied the same force to m2. Help please, I'm puzzled :(