We are given Z_p, where p is prime. It is known that there is an 'a' such that a^3 = 2 (mod p) and that 3 does not divide p-1. Does this imply that f(x) in (x^3-2) = (x-a)f(x) is irreducible over Z_p?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I think this should be trivially easy to answer, but my mind is so muddled up at the moment, that i cant even think straight currently.

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# Irreducibility problem help

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